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Christian Wallgren's avatar

I'm sure this 'misuse' of algebra is now considered a hate crime in Canada.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omar_Alghabra

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Diana's avatar

I was trying to figure out why, in Pfizer's study of children 6 months-4 years, their vaccinated group was about double the size of their placebo group (prior to unblinding when if I remember correctly 100% of the placebo group was vaccinated). And then they based efficacy on children who contracted Covid 7 days or more after Dose 3. Is this similar data diddling as you discuss above? Obviously, for those of us who live in the real world (and if we were actually dealing with a disease that seriously harmed children), what matters isn't the likelihood that our children will become ill more than 3 months after their first vaccination in the series but the likelihood our children will become ill at any point after that first shot. (Including the period post-unblinding when the placebo group went bye-bye.)

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